Monday, August 20, 2012

Parasitology and other -أهم الأسئلة اللي جات بالهيئة


هذا الموقع لتدريب لـ Prometric Laboratory مقارب لاختبارات الهيئه نوعا ما 


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Parasitology
- parasite in blood :-
1.Trypanosoma .
2.Malaria .
3.Leishmania .
4.Toxoplasmosis .

- parasite in blood :-
1.Trypanosoma :-.
- trypanosome habitat blood .
- Intermediate = the bite tse tse flay .
- infection stage = stum by trypanosome .
- Diagnostic by = trypanosome in blood .
- trypanosome move by flagella .
- trypanosome type :-
1. trypanosome cruzi : cause chagas disease .
2. trypanosome gambienes : cause sleeping sickness .
3. trypanosome rhodesienes : cause sleeping sickness . 

2.Malaria :-
- Malaria habitat blood .
- Intermediate = female mosquito .
- infection stage = sporozoites .
- in malaria RBC are lysis .
- malaria detection by Thick blood film .
- type of malaria :-
1. plasmodium vivax = cause Enlarges RBC .
2. plasmodium falciparum = cause malignant malaria . is most abundant prevalence. 
3. plasmodium malariae .
4. plasmodium ovale. 

3.Leishmania :-
- Leishmania is intercellular parasite .
- Leishmania cause tow disease :-
Visceral Leishmania and cutaenous Leishmania .
- transmits by = sand flay .
- infection stage = larva .
- use stain fields stain and gimsa stain .
- Leishmania tropica cause oriental sore disease. 
- Leishmania donovani { Visceral Leishmania } cause kala-azar and black fever .

4.Toxoplasmosis :- 
- diagnosis by = serology test .
- intermedia host = human .
- man may acquire from cats .

* - Toxoplasma gondii :-
- non motile protozoa .
- this organism multiply intracellular parasite. 
- can cause fetal cerebral infection .
- the definitive host is animal. 
- human is not definitive host .


- parasite in urine :-

1. schistosoma haematobium :-
- habitat pelvic plexus .
- infection stage = cercaria .
- Diagnostic stage = egg in urine .
- mode of infection = cercaria penetrates skin .
- cause Egyption haematuria .

2.Trichomonas vaginalis :-
- habitat = vagina , urethra , prostate .
- infection stage = trophozoite .
- diagnosis by = trophozoite in vagina , prostatic secretion , and urine .
- can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge .
- protozoa in sexual reproduction . 

- parasite in stool :-
1. schistosoma masoni :-
- habitat = Mesernteric plexus .
- infection stage = cerecaria .
- mode of infection = cercaria penetrates skin .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .


2. Taenia saginta :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = cysticercus bovies .
- mode of infection = ingestion undercooked beef . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

3. Giardia lamblia :-
- habitat = duodenum .
- infection stage = cyst .
- diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst in faeces .

4. hymenolepis nana { dworf worm } :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = cysticercoid .
- mode of infection = ingestion of egg or inseet . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

5. Entamoeba histplytica :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = mature cyst .
- mode of infection = ingestion of mature cyst .
- diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst in faeces .


6. Enterobius vermicularis :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg .
- Diagnostic stage = Egg on perianal region.

7. Ascaris lumbricoides :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg or larva 
- mode of infection = swallowing water or vegetables . 
- diagnostic stage = fertilized Egg in Faeces.

8.Diphylobthrium latum :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = plerocercoid larva in fish muscle . 
- mode of infection = ingestion of undercooked fish . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

8. fasciola :-
- habitat = bile duct of man .
- infection stage = encysted metacercaria on grass or in water . 
- mode of infection = ingestion of raw vegetation or water . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .


9. Heterophyes heterophyes :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = encysted metacercaria in fish muscle . 
- mode of infection = ingestion undercooked fish . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

10.Trichuris trichiura :- 
- habitat = large intestine { caecum } .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg . 
- mode of infection = swallowing water or vegetables . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

10. Hookworms :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = filariform larva . 
- mode of infection = when the filaiform larva penetrates his intact skin or mucous membrane of the mouth . 
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

11. strongyloids stercoralis :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg . 
- mode of infection = when the filaiform larva penetrates his intact skin or mucous membrane of the mouth .
- diagnostic stage = Rhabdpitiform larva in Faeces .

أهم الأسئلة اللي جات بالهيئة 
2010

1. . chagas disease caused by ?
Trypanosome cruzi . 

2. . malaria diagnosis by ?
Thick blood film .

3. taenia saginate diagnosis by ? 
Egg in stool .

4. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage ?
Embeyonated egg .

5. Rice water stool can cused by ?
Vibrreo cholera .

6. lactobacilli isolated in ?
Stool .

7. yellow brown barrel-shapped egg , coloeless produce plug polar is ?
Trichuris trichiura

8. parasite cause cerevral malaria ?
plasmodium falciparum .


9. infection stage of ancytlostoma ?
Larva 

10. transmitte through sexual intercourse ?
Trichomonas vaginalis .

12. human scabies diagnose by ?
skin scraping of lesion .

13 - Cause Kala- azar:
a- leishmania tropica
b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani
d- leishmania mexicana


14- cause oriental sore:
a- plasmodium ovale
b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense


15- infective stage of S.mansoni 
A- embrynoated egg
B- larva
C- cercaia
D- oocyst


16- The cause of sleeping sickness:
a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)


Blood of microfilaria infection diagnostic with:
- Intracellular parasite
- Not find in the flam photometer:
Photo
- Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition
- Use for clean slide
- Meaning of calcitionin
- Pyrimdin base
- One of the above not present in Diabetic Mellitus coma
- In a blood group the Ab in serum is
- Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by:
- Alkline phosphates is the important enzme to detect function in:
- Steilization by the oven is best accomplished at:
- What practical cardilipin is applicable in laboratory work:
- Amaylase value is high in the following disease:
- Miligram >>> 10^-3 g
- Rbcs male normal value is:
- Anti-coagulante is better for blood agar:
- One is not found (involve) in colormetric:
- The smallest molecular weight Ig is:
- Function of pili of bacteria:
- Hb A is consisting of:
- Direct ant-antibody test used to detect:
- Detection of malaria parasite with persent at RBCs:
- A child diagnose show scarlet fever the cause is :
- Increase of hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found:
- One is not true about acid:
Turn limus paper to blue
- One is not true about alkaline:
Turn limus paper to red
- Iodine stain entamobae cyst used to detect (diagnose):
Nuclei
- Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amound in the laboratory:
- Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:
- One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in:
- Leukocyte responsible for response to parasite & allergic infection:

[HEMATOLOGY

1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time 
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT

7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic drugs
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin

21- Factor II of blood clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red blood cells
b- White blood cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin





34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly
d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma


54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes



60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen   in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency


65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils


71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte


72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain

73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia

78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia



84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above

88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- Vit C deficiency


89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :
a - vit B12 deficiency
b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia




90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is :
a- lymphocyte
b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Neutrophil

91- The first line of defense against parasites:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Lymphocyte

92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:
a- monocyte
b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil
d- Basophile

93- The largest leukocyte is :
a- neutrophils
b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte
d- Basophile

94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:
a- monocyte
b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte
d- neutrophils

95- ……… promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood loss from damaged blood vessels:
a- platelets
b- WBCs
c- RBCs
d- all of the above


96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea

97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:
a- spherocyte
b- Reticulocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- elliptocyte

98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:
a- 2 alpha : 2 gama
b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta
d- 2 beta : 2 gama

99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:
a- neutrophils
b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil
d- Monocyte

100- ………… are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:
a- RBCs
b- WBCs
c- Platelet
d- non of the above

101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red blood cells or both:
a- polycythemia
b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia
d- Leucopenia



102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia
b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- non of the above

103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :
a- hemolytic anemia
b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:
a- 20-40 %
b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 1-5 %

105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency anemia

106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring
b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia
b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia
d- Cooley’s anemia




108-………………. is a multiple small , peripheral grape like purple clusters of iron:
a- cabot ring
b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body
d- Pappenheimer body

109- the blood smear gives the physician information concerning:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet
b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells
d- all of the above

110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- Megaloblastic anemia

111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Sickle cell anemia
d- all of the above

112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:
a- Ig M
b- Ig G
c- Ig D
d- Ig E


113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia
b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia
d- non of the above

114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:
a- pancytopenia
b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count
d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin

115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:
a- elastase
b- Myeloperoxidase
c- Lysozyme
d- Histamine

116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:
a- 0-1 %
b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 %
d- 20-4 %

117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid
b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid
d- Sulphoric acid


















BACTERIOLOGY
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia
d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA
b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics
d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:
a- Nuclear body
b- Spores
c- Cell wall
d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane
b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability
a- Cell wall
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule
d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule
d- Cell wall





124- Clostridium Tetani is:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta
b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- neisseria
d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation
b. Tansduction
c. Conjugation
d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:
a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria
b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria
d- Neutrophilic bacteria




130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
b- Transduction
c- Transformation
d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase
b- Exponential phase .
c- Stationary phase.
d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them





146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 37°C
b- 14°C
c- 60°C
d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins
d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation
d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a- Glass
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes
d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol
b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate
a- aminoglycosides
b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin
d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
a- Yellow
b- Black.
c- Pink
d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis
d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except
a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores
d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction
a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes
d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella
d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:
a- Flagella
b- Fimbria
c- Spores
d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
a- Streptococcus
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus
d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:
a- Decline Phase
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase
d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus
c- Bacteroides
d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs & produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia
b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia
d- Pyaemia
157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms
a- Bacteriostatic
b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal
d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization
b- Heat Sterilization
c- Filtration
d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide
b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis
d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:
a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol
d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by
a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis
d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH
b- K oH
c- H2 O2
d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Chlamydia
b- Spirochetes
c- Mycoplasma
d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses
a- Richettsia
b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:
a- Replication cycle
b- Simple binary fission
c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
a- Capsule
b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella
d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella
a- Spirochaeta
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli
d- Vibrio
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other, closely related species is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation
c. Transduction
d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are
a- micro-airophilic
b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic
d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall
a- Chlamydia
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on
a- Messenger RNA
b- Transfer RN|A
c- Tran****** RNA
d- Double – Stranded DNA
178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
a- 60 – 80 °C
b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C
d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase
d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic
d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
a- Staphylococci
b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella
d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:
a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.
185- For disinfection of mattresses :
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide
d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a- 10
٠°C
b- 6
٠°C
c- 14°C
d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria
d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast
b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte
d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast
d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is
a- Violet
b- Green
c- Red
d- Black

191- Acid Fast Bacteria
a- Salmonella
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis
d- E – Coli
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains
a- Staphylococci
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus
d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information
a- the envelope
b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid
d- the prion

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope
a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
c- herps virus
d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:
a- monomorphic
b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:
a- protein
b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
a- double stranded DNA viruses
b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except:
a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside
d- virus molecular weight
199- in viral replication which is true:
a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step
d- all of the above

200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus
b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate
d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :
a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
c- virus that have not a constant morphology
d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :
a- shadow casting technique
b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique
d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :
a- ELISA Antibody
b- CFT
c- IFT
d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:
a- neutral PH
b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR
b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except:
a- extracted DNA template
b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer
d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic
b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus
d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:
a- HIV
b- HBV
c- HCV
d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:
a- corona viridase
b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase
d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion
b- endocytosis
c- translocation
d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:
a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg
d- non of the above

212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR
b- hyberdization
c- finger printing
d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary
segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- primers
b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease
d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :
a- annealing
b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers
d- non of the above

216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
a- codon
b- probe
c- LCR
d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :
a- non
b- one
c- two
d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:
a- neisseria gonorrhea
b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza
d- staphylococcus aureus



305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:
a- salmonella
b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus
d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:
a- S-S agar
b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar
d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis
b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani
d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani
d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:
a- E-COLI
b- proteus
c- klebsiella
d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on blood agar:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus





311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- E-coli
d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- klebsiella
d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :
a- E-coli
b- salmonella
c- shigella
d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
a- staphylococcus
b- E-coli
c- salmonella
d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :
a- campylobacter
b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera
d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:
a- H-pylori
b- V-cholera
c- E-coli
d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter
b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla
d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
a- staphylococcus
b- streptococcus
c- salmonella
d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus
b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax
b- clostridium
c- diphtheria
d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- cholera
d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica
b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of:
a- T.B
b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis
d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:
a- mycoplasma
b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia
d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain
b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain
d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :
a- food
b- blood
c- semen
d- (b) & (c)

393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea
b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:
a- RPR
b- VDRL
c- Wasserman
d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:
a- streptolysin O
b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase
d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:
a- scarlet fever
b- purperal sepsis
c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:
a- coagulase enzyme
b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:
a- Klebsilla
b- Salmonella
c- Proteus
d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :
a- food
b- droplet
c- touch
d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
a- T.B.
b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:
a- clostridium tetani
b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :
a-merozoites
b- sporozoites
c- schizont
d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:
a- schistosoma haematobium
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes
d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium
d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou
b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media
d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media
b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media
d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea
b- C. diphtheria
c- staphylococcus
d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
a- blood
b- sputum
c- CSF
d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain
d- all of the above
411-……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water
d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:
a- green
b- red
c- yellow
d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
a- E.coli
b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:
a- 10 % KOH
b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:
a- T.vaginalis
b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:
a- Loeffler media
b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media
b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media
d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture
b- CSF culture
c- blood culture
d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks
d- 3 weeks





420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :
a- 10% NaOH
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH
d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged
d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:
a- living together
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:
a- flagella
b- cilia
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:
a- Trichomonas hominis
b- Trichomonas tenax
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:
a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:
a- gram +ve bacteria
b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:
a- catalase
b- coagulase
c- indole
d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:
a- black
c- yellow
c- red
d- green

468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:
a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur
d- non of the above

470- ………… give positive result with urease test:
a- salmonella
b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica
d- all of the above

471-…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:
a- indole
b- methyl red
c- H2S production
d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:
a- streptococcus pneumonia
b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus
d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet
b- safranine
c- iodine
d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :
a- malachite green
b- methylene blue
c- iodine
d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :
a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae
d- streptococcus pyrogenes

1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin
b- Heparin
c- Protein C
d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway
a- factor XI
b- factor XIII
c- factor I
d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of
a- factor VIII
b- factor IX
c- factor V
d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity
b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis
d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:
a- lymphocytes
b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells
d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:
a- bleeding time
b- Thrombin time
c- Prothrombin time
d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT


7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:
a- multiple myeloma
b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :
a- thrombocytopenia
b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:
a- thrombocytopenia
b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis
d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:
a- cytotoxic drugs
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage
d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:
a- Intrinsic pathway only
b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways
d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:
a- 2-7 minutes
b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes
d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes
b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :
a- factor V
b- factor VIII
c- factor IX
d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:
a- chronic myeloid myeloma
b-acute myeloid myeloma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :
a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3
b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3
d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:
a- factor Va
b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa
d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :
a- protein C
b- protein S
c- antithrombin III
d- warfarin


21- Factor II of blood clotting is:
a- Christmas factor
b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin
d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII
a- II
b- V
c- VII
d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:
a- prothrombin
b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin
d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:
a- red blood cells
b- White blood cells
c- platelets
d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds
d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:
a- monocytosis - bacteria
b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive
d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:
a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d- chronic myeloid leukemia
28- Normal fibrinogen level:
a- 150-400 gm%
b- 150-400 mg %
c- 15-40 mg %
d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
a- echo virus
b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV
d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:
a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis
d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
a- prothrombin time
b- Thrombin time
c- Bleeding time
d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:
a- Prothrombin
b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen
d- Plasmin





34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase
b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly
d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :
a- Heparin
b-Histamine
c- Urokinase
d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A
b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation
d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa
b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa
d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in
a- Neutrophil
b- Basophil
c- Acidophil
d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is
a- PT
b- PTT
c- Bleeding time
d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:
a- Vit K
b- Vit C
c- Vit A
d- Protamin sulphate
41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:
a- Prothrombin to thrombin
b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin
d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:
a- Clot retraction
b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion
d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:
a- Factor III
b- Factor IV
c- Factor V
d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):
a- 30-45 sec
b- 2-4 min
c- 3-9 min
d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:
a- Obstructive jaundice
b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake
d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:
a- Aplastic anemia
b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia
d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:
a- New born
b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs
d- Prolonged use of antibiotics
48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia
b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction
d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min
b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec
d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time
d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time
b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time
d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT
b- PTT
c- PT
d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia
b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma
d- Multiple myeloma
he absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia
b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia
d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:
a- Poikilcytosis
b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis
d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:
a- Stomatocyte
b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte
d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia
d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:
a- folic acid deficiency
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:
a- spherocyte
b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte
d- Elliptocutes



60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen   in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte
b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte
d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism
b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia
d- thalassemia
e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:
a- normochromic anemia
b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia
d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia
d- folic acid deficiency


65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin
cause:
a- sickle cell anemia
b- Aplastic anemia
c- Pernicious anemia
d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:
a- 2-8 %
b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 %
d- 2-4 %

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:
a- platelet
b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte
d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes
a- lymphocytes
b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes
d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils
b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles
d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:
a- moncytes
b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell
d- Neutrophils


71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HBS)
a- sickle cell
b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte
d- Stomatocyte


72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers
b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen
d- Attacks of pain

73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body
b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body
d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil
b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile
d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency
b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow
a- sideroblastic anemia
b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy
a- iron deficiency
b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency
d- Aplastic anemia

78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains salt & organic compounds:
a- plasma
b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin
d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:
a- variation in red cell size
b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape
d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:
a- echinocyte
b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte
d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin
d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- Hereditary elliplocytosis
c- G6PD deficiency
d- sickle cell anemia



84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A
b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F
d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:
a- Thalassemia
b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency
d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :
a- normocytic normochromic anemia
b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
c- macrocytic anemia
d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:
a- iron deficiency anemia
b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency
d- all of the above



Best Wishes: Dr.Ehab Aboueladab, Tel:01007834123 Email:ehab10f@gmail.com,ehababoueladab@yahoo.com ehab fathy aboueladab
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